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Are there historical instances of the capital of a colonising country being temporarily or permanently shifted to one of its colonies?

Are there historical instances of the capital of a colonising country being temporarily or permanently shifted to one of its colonies?

When the Portuguese Royal Court (over 15,000 souls) fled the Napoleonic invasion of Portugal in 1807, and installed itself in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, Rio became the capital of the pluricontinental Lusitanian monarchy until 1822.

  • This is one of the few instances in history that the capital of a colonising country officially shifted to a city in one of its colonies. (from Wikipedia)

What are the other instances referred to in the above paragraph? When and where?

EDIT - I thought I had so phrased my question that it would convey exactly what I meant it to. It seems, however, that "to a city in one of its colonies" sounds ambiguous to some. By that I mean to another country, to a city or place outside the borders of the colonising country. Naturally, it has to be a colony. If the head of a state moves or flees to London and tries to rule his country from there, that is not what I'm looking for.

EDIT II - definition of Colony - A country or area under the full or partial political control of another country and occupied by settlers from that country.


You might count Free France from 1940-1944:

Capital:

  • Brazzaville (1940-1943)
  • Algiers (1943-1944)

Like Byzantium (that is Roman Empire capital becoming Constantinople), Trier was colonised by the Romans and then made a capital for a time. Speaking of Byzantium, that city had such an honour again, when the Ottomans took Constantinople and renamed it eventually to Istanbul.

The Yuan dynasty of the Mongols and later the Qing dynasty might be described as colonising China and shifting their capitals.

During the War of the Fourth Coalition Königsberg, in East Prussia that first 'had to be' colonised in the previous centuries, was the capital of Prussia for as long as Napoleon's troops occupied Berlin. This is actually a case of a former colony transferring its very name to the German colonisers of Brandenburg as a whole.


Note that this all hinges a bit on definitions. This answer excludes internal colonisation as otherwise also the colonisation of East-Germany by the Federal Republic after 1990 would count as well, as the capital of the internal colonisers was moved permanently from Bonn to Berlin.
But the above refers at maximum to such processes like Russia did with Siberia.

Also note that the officially designated status or "how handled" can be intentionally misleading: Algeria was "part of the French motherland", but I guess these parts of Africa were clearly a colony?

From 1848 until independence, the whole Mediterranean region of Algeria was administered as an integral part of France.

If that example of Algeria wouldn't count, then the premise from the question becomes moot:

When Brazil was elevated to Kingdom in 1815, it became the capital of the United Kingdom of Portugal, Brazil and the Algarves until the return of the Portuguese Royal Family to Lisbon in 1821, but remained as capital of the Kingdom of Brazil.

As the question doesn't narrow the criterion down to "overseas colony in the age of colonialism", we might as well look at the oldest examples. Like the Assyrians, having their name identical to their old capital of Assur, but moving to Calah and Nineveh.

The differences between conquering and colonisation would have to be explored and defined a bit more closely. Otherwise the list of examples might get a little longer. For example including the move of the Russian capital from Moscow to St Petersburg.


A note on the definition proposed as an emphasis on "A country or area under the full or partial political control of another country and occupied by settlers from that country."

Portugal's and many British colonies would have a hard time to really fit into this. Especially for India and Africa, the British colonised without very much settlers compared to the New Zealand or the American colonies. Portugal, unable to afford emigration on such a scale exported even less settlers over time. For the time of the Transfer of the Portuguese Court to Brazil:

When the Portuguese court arrived in Rio de Janeiro on March 7, 1808, Brazil was very sparsely populated, with a little over 3 million inhabitants. Around one-third of the colony's population consisted of enslaved peoples, most having been captured and shipped from Africa. The indigenous population at the time was of around 800,000 people having been dramatically reduced and isolated during the first 300 years of exploration and colonization. Population density was concentrated along the Atlantic coastline.

Under the definition from the question, let's look again at early Brandenburg-Prussia, when the Hohenzollern inherited the Duchy of Prussia:


(East-)Prussia is the isolated red fleck to the right, controlled from Berlin; further the local Old Prussians, Kashubs, Warmiaks, Poles, Latvians, Lithuanians, Masurians were constantly complemented with ethnic German settlers.


Taipei

Kuomintang's Republic of China moved its capital from Chengdu (and originally, from Nanjing) to Taipei, Taiwan on 7 December 1949, after several defeats against Chinese Communists.

Officially a "temporary capital", Taipei is still the capital of the ROC/Taïwan 70 years later.

Taiwan had been annexed to China in 1683 by the Qing dynasty, starting a centuries-long colonization of the island.

Omsk

Russia conquered Siberia during the 17th century (it probably counts as a 'colony'). In 1918, the retreating anti-Soviet Provisional All-Russian Government settled its capital in Omsk under Admiral Kolchak.

edit: The definition of a colony proposed by the OP is: A country or area under the full or partial political control of another country and occupied by settlers from that country. With that understanding, both examples hold: those areas (Taiwan and Siberia) were under political control of resp. China and Russia and occupied by settlers.


When Alexander attacked Tyre, which was the largest and most populous Phoenician city, large parts of the city were evacuated to Carthage. Carthage was most definitely a colony of Tyre, even if you don't buy the whole Queen Dido story.

After the fall of Tyre it fell under the rule of Alexander and then the Diadochi. Its citizens, that weren't killed/executed by Alexander ransomed themselves and fled to Carthage, which itself became a powerful city-state until Rome came along.

I quote Pieter Geerkens from this previous history stackexchange question,

"According to this source, Carthage remained a minor Phoenician outpost until after the fall of Tyre to Alexander the Great in 332 BC. At that time many of the wealthy citizens of Tyre, having ransomed themselves from Alexander, moved to Carthage and began the constructions that led to it rapidly becoming the wealthiest city of the Western Mediterranean."

Sources:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carthage

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siege_of_Tyre_(332_BC)

https://www.ancient.eu/carthage/


Babylon

Cyrus the Great, King of the First Persian or Achaemenid Empire, conquered the Neo-Babylonian empire in 539 BC. Babylon became the administrative (and main) capital. Wikipedia (Achaemenid Empire) cites the following from the The Cambridge History of Iran, Volume 3:

Of the four residences of the Achaemenids named by Herodotus - Ecbatana, Pasargadae or Persepolis, Susa and Babylon - the last [situated in Iraq] was maintained as their most important capital, the fixed winter quarters, the central office of bureaucracy, exchanged only in the heat of summer for some cool spot in the highlands.

(my emphasis)


Winchester King Canute the Great of Denmark became king of England as well in 1018. He then moved his capital from Jelling in Denmark to Winchester in England, where he established the capital of his Northern Empire. This empire lated until 1035.


Dtjytyk

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If we have a local diffeomorphism $F: U rightarrow V$ , with $U subseteq mathbb^k$ and $V subseteq M$ , and $mathbb^k$ with the usual smooth structure, then is it always the case that we can consider $F^<-1>$ as a chart map for $M$ ?

It seems so because as a diffeomorphism, $F circ psi^<-1>$ implies compatibility with the charts of $M$ .

If we have a local diffeomorphism $F: U rightarrow V$ , with $U subseteq mathbb^k$ and $V subseteq M$ , and $mathbb^k$ with the usual smooth structure, then is it always the case that we can consider $F^<-1>$ as a chart map for $M$ ?

It seems so because as a diffeomorphism, $F circ psi^<-1>$ implies compatibility with the charts of $M$ .

If we have a local diffeomorphism $F: U rightarrow V$ , with $U subseteq mathbb^k$ and $V subseteq M$ , and $mathbb^k$ with the usual smooth structure, then is it always the case that we can consider $F^<-1>$ as a chart map for $M$ ?

It seems so because as a diffeomorphism, $F circ psi^<-1>$ implies compatibility with the charts of $M$ .


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In Diablo 1, there is no storage other than your character inventory. This can be a bit of an issue, particularly as you collect more and more gold, etc.

However, I saw one playthrough presumably done in one session, where hey dropped items in the centre of town. Items such as rings and amulets, that could be useful at a later date.

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In Diablo 1, there is no storage other than your character inventory. This can be a bit of an issue, particularly as you collect more and more gold, etc.

However, I saw one playthrough presumably done in one session, where hey dropped items in the centre of town. Items such as rings and amulets, that could be useful at a later date.

Do items dropped in Diablo 1 ever despawn?

In Diablo 1, there is no storage other than your character inventory. This can be a bit of an issue, particularly as you collect more and more gold, etc.

However, I saw one playthrough presumably done in one session, where hey dropped items in the centre of town. Items such as rings and amulets, that could be useful at a later date.

Do items dropped in Diablo 1 ever despawn?


1 Answer 1

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Actually child is not outside of the parent view.

Hi, in the above code where are calling this proxyValidate method from parent? And how it will help to disable button in parent?

Ok this is working now. Is this what you were after? proxyValidate wasn't needed.


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Using a simple google search about the topic you would be able to find my PhD thesis even though the content cannot be accessed online, but surely could be accessed by contacting my previous school or the library.

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As said above, I was never really interested in publishing my thesis, but now that I saw the paper I was thinking: Hey, I was the first! They should have at least cited my thesis!

I am now wondering, what my options would be and came up with the following two possibilities:


  1. Well, tough luck! I never published my results and so it just seems fair that somebody else did (assuming that they came up with them independently).
  2. Write the editor of the journal and inform them that the main message from the paper was already covered in my thesis and thus is not novel research.

So I was wondering, whether number 1 above applies or whether I should go with number 2. Or what would be other possibilities?


3 Answers 3

I'm not aware of a name for this phenomenon, it's just a quick way to transpose music based on how the tonal system works out.

In short, when you're in a key, look at the key signature. Take the number of accidentals in the key and replace them with the mod-7 complement of the other accidental type and you're left with a key built a half step away from the original tonic.

So you're in E major with 4 sharps. Let's take the mod-7 complement of the other accidental type: 7-4=3, so we're left with 3 flats, which is E&flat major, one half step away from the original tonic of E.

You're now asking about 2 flats in the key signature this is B&flat major. 7-2=5, so a key of 5 sharps will be B major.

This trick is especially fun in C, which has 0 sharps or flats. The mod-7 complement of 0 is 7, so if we have 7 sharps in the key signature, we're in C&sharp major 7 flats makes it C&flat major!

Note that this trick isn't exclusive to major it works for minor keys as well.

Lastly, know that this works perfectly until you encounter accidentals in the music you'll have to have a more contextual understanding of those accidentals to know how they should be interpreted in your new key.

Thank you! Give me a little time to digest it because I am using Do-Re-Mi-Fa system not C-D-E one so I need to corellate, but I will come back later.

@Zacky You will need to swap C for Do, D for Re, etc but otherwise the answer should work.

+1. Usual thorough answer! It's just mathematical serendipty, but useful. I often used to start a song in Eb and modulate to E by 'changing the key sig.'. Same with Ab and A. They seem to be the simplest 'mod-7'.

@badjohn - I suspect Zacky's using 'fixed do', which can get rather messy in this situation. Moveable do works just fine, though.

@Tim In the fixed do system, can't we just regard do as a translation of C, re or D etc. If I read "mi bémol majeur" in French, I just think "E♭ major". For example: fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symphonie_n%C2%BA_3_(Beethoven).


I was curious if other combinations exists, let's say we have a song in 2 bemols (flats), what is the equivalence of it in diesis (sharps)? I couldn't find it myself. Is there a name for this phenomenon so I can learn more?


There isn’t a name for this phenomen. But we can find one. In German I would call them “gleichnamige” Tonarten, in English this would be “same named” keys.
(Now, as we know they are not exactly the same name, as the “related” key*1) has added a -bemol (flat) and is a half tone lower!)

The phenomen can be explained quite simply by the circle of fifths and by the tones of the twelve
tone scale (fixed do names!)

Do, Re-bemol, Re, Mi-bemol, Mi, Fa, Fa#/Sol-bemol, Sol, La-bemol, La, Si-bemol, Si.

Of each tone of the doremi scale exist two keys: one on the -bemol site (flats) and the -diesis (sharps) site. The two keys with the same name are differing logically a minor second respectively 7 fifths
and can be played by exchanging the amount of # with the amount of b of its same named (“related”) key:

So this “related” keys in question are:

analogically we get (starting with Re-bemol):

This is a consequence of the key signatures. Basically, what you're doing is changing the number of accidentals in the key signature by seven (some would argue that's an oxymoron, but you all know what I mean). It turns out that by doing this, you've transposed the song into the key a half-step up. If you want the same exact key, you can add or subtract 12, but that makes for some ugly key signatures.

It's pretty intuitive change the number of accidentals by seven, and you lower or raise every note by a half-step. That's the definition of how to transpose by a half-step!


2 Answers 2

In America, at least, "gray hair" is a catch-all category that includes white. It would not be surprising to refer to someone with white hair and beard as having gray hair.

Still, the more precise description of the beard in your picture would be white. Santa Claus is always depicted with white hair and a white beard, and almost nobody thinks of that image as being in any way gray.

It really just depends on how fussy you are. Hair color, like eye color, can be hard to pin down. A redhead I dated once asked me to describe her hair color. I told her it looked orange to me. She was pleased, and told me I was the first one who didn't just automatically tell her it was red. (For the record, it really was orange.)

We use grey to describe the colour of people's hair when it changes from its original colour, usually as they get old (source).

However, "white hair" can also be said to express the same thing:


(of hair, a beard, etc.) silvery or grey, usually from age (source).



2 Answers 2

The way I understood it, Carol was infused with the energy from Mar-Vell's engine, but her Kree blood is from Yon-Rogg.


  • By the time the engine blows up, Mar-Vell is in no shape to be giving blood transfusions.
  • The way the topic of the transfusion comes up means that we have no reason to doubt it, or at least no reason to doubt that that's how Carol remembers it.
  • Carol undoubtedly has blue (Kree) blood, yet The Great Intelligence is unable to take away her powers - because said powers don't come from The Great Intelligence. In other words, her powers and her Kree traits have two different sources.

(All of this is based on the movie only - I've never so much as encountered a Captain Marvel comic book.)

This was my understanding/interpretation as well from the movie, I was wondering if her DNA/blood was fused w/ Mar-Vell's when the engine explode though.

@slm They didn't fuse. I found it pretty clear as to what happened

The blood transfusion on Hala was from Yon-Rogg, that's made clear. I was willing to believe that the explosion of the engine was similar enough to her original origin (which has, I believe, been changed in the comics) that the DNA-mixing from Mar-Vell MAY indeed have happened, and could have served as a catalyst in making her capable of absorbing the energy, as opposed to being reduced to a fine red mist.

@VBartilucci IIRC, from the positions they were standing in, the blast would have pushed Danvers's blood over Mar-Vell's body if anything of that sort happened

Given it was used as a test by Yon-Rogg to determine whether or not it was the real Danvers he was speaking to and the Skrull's inability to answer was enough for Yon-Rogg to shoot the Skrull, he would have to be pretty certain that the real Danvers would know (or at least believe) she had received Yon-Rogg's blood.

Additionally, Mar-Vell's engine was not necessarily anything to do with Kree technology. It was mentioned by a Skrull, iirc Thalos(?) that her powers exhibited the same energy signature as the engine, which would suggest that all the explosion gave her was Tesseract power, something that is unlikely to give Danvers Kree blood since the Tesseract's power pertains to space.


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